Why did Mueller avoid the obvious legal crime?

Yes, the Mueller Report makes clear there was Russian coordination. So why did Mueller conclude otherwise? Did Barr's pressure influence that? And/or what else? The law is clear on this, so why Mueller's twisted hedging? Also see the rest of the article at the link.

"The DOJ’s initial appointment explicitly tasked Mueller with investigating campaign 'coordination,' and it is not too much to ask that he get the law of 'coordination' right. The report stated that ‘coordination does not have a settled definition in federal criminal law. We understood coordination to require an agreement—tacit or express.'  

"However, Congress purposely sought to prevent such narrow interpretations: in 2002, it passed a statute directing that campaign finance regulations 'shall not require agreement or formal collaboration to establish coordination.' The Federal Election Commission established the regulations for the implementation of the statute:  'Coordinated means made in cooperation, consultation or concert with, or at the request or suggestion of, a candidate,' with no need to show any kind of agreement."